In search of a nicer $G$...

Prologue~
“What is it indeed that gives us the feeling of elegance in a solution, in a demonstration? It is the harmony of the diverse parts, their symmetry, their happy balance; in a word it is all that introduces order, all that gives unity, that permits us to see clearly and to comprehend at once both the ensemble and the details.”
—From Science et Méthode (1908), Livre Premier, Chapitre 2, p. 25; Translated in The Foundations of Science: Science and Hypothesis, The Value of Science, Science and Method (1913), p. 372. by  Henri Poincaré

Verse I: What is a 'nicer' G?
So I have a group $G$- (say, a non-trivial one) which can either have a commutative or non-commutative structure, that is, be abelian or non-abelian. Now, abelian groups are very 'nice' to deal with- they make things easier for us, but non-abelian groups, not so much...
So how can one make things easier in a non-abelian group, or rather- how can we work in or deal with a 'nice' part of this non-abelian group which can make things (again, say-) 'nicer'? We explore this question in this post.

Verse II: The canvas~
Let $G$ be any non-trivial group, then if $a,b \in G$, then the commutator of $a$ and $b$ is the element $ab a^{-1} b^{-1}$.  
A good observation would be to see that if our $G$ is abelian, then our commutator is simply the identity element $e \in G$. Now, let us define $C$ to be the set\[ C =\{ x_1 x_2 x_3 \cdots x_n \ | \ n \geq 1, \text{each $x_i$ is a commutator in $G$} \} \] Basically, our $C$ here is the collection of all finite products of commutators in $G$. One can intuitively see that $C$ then will be a normal subgroup of $G$. \[ C \lhd G\] If not, maybe we can try thinking about it- as mentioned above, at least the identity element is a commutator and hence our $C$ is non-empty. And given any two elements in $C$, they are of the form $x_1 x_2 \cdots x_n$ and $y_1 y_2 \cdots y_n$ and since this is just a finite product of commutators, we also have their inverses existing, which then again belong to $C$. Now we can take an element $g \in G$ and apply the left conjugation action by $g$ on an element of $C$. As depicted below, we can play around!\[ g c g^{-1} = g x_1 x_2 \cdots x_n g^{-1} = (g x_1 g^{-1}) (g x_2 g^{-1}) \cdots g(x_n g^{-1}) \] Also notice that given any arbitrary element $c \in C$, we have, \[ (g c g^{-1})^{-1} = g c^{-1} g^{-1}\] and we obtain our equation back. Moreover, $g c g^{-1}$ was a product of commutators and hence it belongs in $C$.
$\therefore$ $\forall \ g \in G$ and $c \in C$, $gcg^{-1} \in C$, and hence, $C \lhd G$.
The normal subgroup $C$ of $G$ is  called the commutator subgroup or the derived subgroup of $G$ and is usually denoted by $C= G' = [G,G]$.
Also, if our $G$ is abelian (to begin with,) we then obtain $C=\{e\}$ and hence one can see the commutator subgroup as one measure of how far away a group is from being abelian.
To answer the question we began with, what does it mean to abelianize a group?

Verse III: Towards Abelianization~
What it intuitively means is that whenever $g,h \in G$, we must have $hg=gh$ with respect to the group operation (which has been suppressed here). But from the sketch of the proof done above, we realise that an abelian group has $C=\{e\}$ and therefore, in particular, we want every element of the form $ghg^{-1} h^{-1}$ to be the identity. And indeed, this is all that we need to do!
That is to say, if $gh g^{-1} h^{-1} = e, \ \forall g,h \in G$, then our $G$ is abelian!
We can see this as, \[ ghg^{-1}h^{-1}= e \Rightarrow ghg^{-1}= h  \Rightarrow gh =hg \]
What does this tell us though?
If we make every commutator of our group $G$ trivial, then we will abelianize $G$, and conversely, to make $G$ abelian, we have to make every commutator of our group $G$ trivial.
But, how do we do that?
We have a commutator subgroup $C$ which is normal in $G$. We can take the quotient of $G$ by $C$ (since it will give us a quotient group) and it makes good sense as the first step to play around!
Now, what we obtain will be a quotient group consisting of all the cosets of $C$ in $G$ and one can see that this very well could be (rather will be) the 'nicer', that is, the 'abelian version' of our group $G$ which we have been looking for. Now let's see if this works!
Consider the abelianization of $G$: \(G^{\mathrm{ab}} = G/[G,G]\)
Consider the quotient \[G^{\mathrm{ab}} \;:=\; G/[G,G]\] It is abelian because for any \(a,b \in G\), which is to say that, \[(a[G,G])\,(b[G,G]) \;=\; ab[G,G]\] while \[(b[G,G])\,(a[G,G]) \;=\; ba[G,G]\] But \(ab\) and \(ba\) differ by the commutator- what does that mean?
Well, since $ab= [a,b] (ba)$, the two cosets coincide. 
We have $[a,b] = aba^{-1} b^{-1}$ and if we multiply on the right  by $(ba)$, we obtain \[ [a,b] (ba)= aba^{-1}b^{-1} (ba) = ab a^{-1} (b^{-1} b) a = ab a^{-1} a = ab\] \[\therefore ab = [a,b](ba),\] so \[ab[G,G] = [G,G] (ba)\] since \([a,b]\in [G,G]\). Hence the cosets commute and \(G^{\mathrm{ab}}\) is abelian. Conversely, if every commutator is trivial in a quotient \(G/N\), then \([G,G]\subseteq N\). This gives the minimality of \([G,G]\): \([G,G]\) is the smallest normal subgroup of \(G\) with abelian quotient, i.e. for any normal \(N\trianglelefteq G\), \(G/N\) is abelian if and only if \([G,G]\subseteq N\).

Verse IV: Universality in Action~
Now, the abelianization of our group $G$ is not just an abelian quotient; it is the universal one.
If \(A\) is abelian and \(\varphi:G\to A\) is any homomorphism, then there exists a unique homomorphism \(\overline{\varphi}:G^{\mathrm{ab}}\to A\) such that \(\varphi = \overline{\varphi}\circ \pi\), where \(\pi:G\to G^{\mathrm{ab}}\) is the natural projection.
Why? Since \(A\) is abelian, \(\varphi([a,b])=e\) for all \(a,b\in G\), so \([G,G]\subseteq \ker\varphi\).
And by the First Isomorphism Theorem, \(\varphi\) factors uniquely through \(G/[G,G]\).
And guess what? This universal property is often the most efficient definition of abelianization.

Epilogue~
When we begin with a non-abelian group, we constantly worry about the turbulence of non-commutativity and what abelianization does for us is- it takes away that turbulence and offers us a 'nicer' environment to work with. 
The process gives a precise answer: we take the quotient by the commutator subgroup, leaving the 'largest' abelian image of the original group. This is not just convenient—it is universal. Any map from our group to an abelian group must factor uniquely through this construction. That is why abelianization matters: it formalizes the idea of extracting commutativity in the most general and economical way, without discarding more structure than necessary.

References- (1), (2).

In search of $G$...

Prologue~
“A mathematician, like a painter or a poet, is a maker of patterns. If his patterns are more permanent than theirs, it is because they are made with ideas. The mathematician’s patterns, like the painter’s or the poet’s, must be beautiful; the ideas, like the colours or the words, must fit together in a harmonious way. Beauty is the first test: there is no permanent place in the world for ugly mathematics.”
— From A Mathematician’s Apology by G. H. Hardy

Verse I: The Problem~
An extension problem in group theory typically deals with construction of new groups with the already existing ones.
What that asks of you is to imagine two groups- $N$ and $Q$, and then search the group(s) (namely $G$) that would consist of $N$ at its core (as a normal subgroup) and $Q$ as a visible skeleton (as a quotient).
This problem can look something like:$$1 \rightarrow N \rightarrow G \rightarrow Q \rightarrow 1 $$
So, can we construct $G$ knowing only $Q$ and $N$?
Well, there is more to a sequence like that!

Verse II: The Rise~
Hurewicz introduced the idea of exact sequences in 1941 (without naming it) to describe boundary maps in cohomology. Kelley and Pitcher coined the term "exact sequence" in 1947, acknowledging its use by Eilenberg and Steenrod in earlier courses.
The  variations of the story surrounding the naming of the term, 'exact sequences' can be accessed here.
It seems rather funny to me that the term 'right' was actually 'exact'!  
Another variation can be accessed here.

Verse III: The sequence~
A split extension is an extension  $1 \rightarrow K \rightarrow G \rightarrow H \rightarrow 1$ with a homomorphism  $\phi : H \rightarrow G$, if the short exact sequence induces the identity map on $H$ i.e., $p \circ \phi = id_H$ where $p: G \rightarrow H$ is the projection . In this situation, it is usually said that $\phi$ splits the above exact sequence.

Verse IV: The Way~
So to tackle the problem, one approach could be (will be) to construct the group using direct products of $N$ and $Q$ (a trivial case, perhaps) and every element of $G$ is then simply represented as an ordered pair, where one element comes from $N$ and the other from $Q$. In such a case, we find $G$ to contain a copy of $N$ as well as $Q$!
$$G \cong N \times Q$$ And, nothing mystical really happens— instead the two groups coexist peacefully without entanglements (in a trivial sense, that is).
But are all cases trivial? Certainly no!
Consider a semidirect product, $$G \cong N \rtimes_\phi Q$$ Here, $Q$ no longer simply co-inhabits $G$ with $N$, instead it acts upon the automorphism group of $N$, and the fabric of our beloved group $G$ here, becomes richer in tapestry.
Is that where our thinking stops? Certainly no (again)!
There exist cases where $G$ cannot be expressed as a direct or a semidirect product of $N$ and $Q$ and those give rise to the non-split extensions. Which implies that even though $N$ and $Q$ are present in the groups, one cannot unseam the stitches of the fabric and obtain copies of them.
A small example would be to consider $N= \mathbb{Z}/ 2 \mathbb{Z}$ and $Q= \mathbb{Z}/ 2 \mathbb{Z}$. Now, constructing it's direct product, we obtain $\mathbb{Z}/ 2 \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/ 2 \mathbb{Z}$ which is the split extension and surprisingly enough, the semi direct product also leads us to the same group, which (voilà!) is isomorphic to the Klein 4 group. 

Verse V: The other Way~
But, there also exists a possible non-split extension- $G \cong \mathbb{Z} / 4 \mathbb{Z}$.
Then how do we know which one is our $G$? Because $\mathbb{Z} / 4 \mathbb{Z}$ is a non-split extension and hence cannot be written as a semidirect product.
Well, this ambiguity, with a small example underlines our extension problem which arises from this multiplicity of possibilities.

Verse VI: The 'exact'~
An exact sequence is a sequence of morphisms between objects (groups, rings, modules, objects of abelian categories, etc.) such that the image of a morphism equals the kernel of the next.   
And a sequence is short exact if in- $$ 0 \rightarrow A\xrightarrow{f} B \xrightarrow{g} C \rightarrow 0$$ our $f$ is injective and $g$ is surjective and $im (f)= ker (g)$.
Actually, short exact of complexes leads to a long exact sequence in homology (let's delve into them at a later time). 

Epilogue~
Mathematics often (but not always) begins with the concrete—numbers, shapes, groups—and then dissolves into patterns of relationships (our beloved categories).
The extension problem is a quiet metaphor for this: knowing the parts does not guarantee knowing the whole. We see $N$ and $Q$, yet $G$ 
resists complete revelation, for structure is more than just the sum. This is the quiet truth mathematics shares with art: form matters as much as substance.
Maybe structure is not an afterthought; but simply the essence.
It is indeed the pattern that breathes life into pieces, and perhaps this is why the language of exactness feels profound—it teaches us that understanding lies not in what we have, but in how what we have holds together.